Some problems are hard because they are complicated. The Basel problem is hard for the opposite reason: it takes one line to state, anyone can check the first few terms by hand, and yet for almost ninety years nobody could finish it. The question, which Pietro Mengoli asked in 1650 [1], is the value of the sum

∑n=1∞1n2=1+14+19+⋯(1)\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} = 1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{9} + \cdots \tag{1}

the sum of the reciprocals of the squares: one, plus a quarter, plus a ninth, plus a sixteenth, and so on without end.

It was a natural question to ask. Nicole Oresme had shown in the fourteenth century that the harmonic series 1+12+13+⋯1 + \frac12 + \frac13 + \cdots grows without bound, and Mengoli had just proved that the alternating series 1−12+13−⋯1 - \frac12 + \frac13 - \cdots adds up to ln⁡2\ln 2. Squaring the denominators makes the terms shrink much faster, so this sum stays finite; the question is what it equals. Jakob Bernoulli proved that it is less than 2, spread the question, and admitted that its exact value had defeated him [2].1 The problem is named after Basel, the city of the Bernoullis and of the man who finally solved it, Leonhard Euler, in 1735 [3]. Ayoub tells the whole story [4].

This article tells the story in the order it happened: the problem first, and why it was so stubborn, then the proofs one after another, from Euler’s to a double-integral proof found in 1983 and given its present form in 1993. Each of them finds the π\pi somewhere else.

The problem

What an infinite sum means

Nobody can add infinitely many numbers one after another; the additions would never end. What we can do is add the first few and watch what happens. The sum of the first NN terms is called the NN-th partial sum,

SN=1+14+19+⋯+1N2,S_N = 1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{9} + \cdots + \frac{1}{N^2},

and the infinite sum is defined as the number these partial sums approach as NN grows, if there is one.

A simpler series shows the idea. Walk halfway across a room, then half the remaining distance, then half of what is left, and so on. The distances are 12,14,18,…\frac12, \frac14, \frac18, \dots, and after NN steps you have covered 1−1/2N1 - 1/2^N of the room. You never arrive, but the gap 1/2N1/2^N shrinks below any bound you care to name, and so

12+14+18+⋯=1.\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8} + \cdots = 1.

That is all the equals sign means for an infinite sum.

Definition 1. A series a1+a2+a3+⋯a_1 + a_2 + a_3 + \cdots converges to a number SS, its sum, when the partial sums SN=a1+⋯+aNS_N = a_1 + \cdots + a_N come as close to SS as we like and stay there: for every ε>0\varepsilon > 0 there is an N0N_0 such that ∣SN−S∣<ε|S_N - S| < \varepsilon for every N≥N0N \ge N_0. A series that does not converge diverges.

The Basel problem therefore asks two questions in one. Do the partial sums of (1) approach a limit at all? And if they do, which number is it?

Small terms are not enough

For a series to converge, its terms must shrink to zero; otherwise every step adds at least some fixed amount, and the partial sums run off. But shrinking is not enough, and the harmonic series 1+12+13+14+⋯1 + \frac12 + \frac13 + \frac14 + \cdots is the standard warning. Its terms shrink to zero, yet its partial sums grow without bound. The argument, which goes back to Oresme, groups the terms in blocks that end at powers of 2:

1+12+(13+14)+(15+⋯+18)+⋯1 + \tfrac{1}{2} + \left(\tfrac{1}{3} + \tfrac{1}{4}\right) + \left(\tfrac{1}{5} + \cdots + \tfrac{1}{8}\right) + \cdots

Each block adds up to at least 12\frac12. The two terms in the first bracket are each at least 14\frac14; the four in the second are each at least 18\frac18; the eight in the next are each at least 116\frac{1}{16}, and so on. So the first 2k2^k terms add up to at least 1+k/21 + k/2, which passes any number you name once kk is large enough. The growth is extremely slow, though: the partial sums pass 5 at the 83rd term, and 10 only at the 12,367th. A series can diverge while looking, to anyone adding terms by hand, as if it were settling down.

Signs can change the picture. Mengoli’s alternating series 1−12+13−14+⋯1 - \frac12 + \frac13 - \frac14 + \cdots has the same terms, but each one partly cancels the one before, and the partial sums settle down to ln⁡2=0.693…\ln 2 = 0.693\ldots. The Basel series has no such help: all its terms are positive, so the only question is whether they shrink fast enough.

The squares converge

They do. The squares grow much faster than the whole numbers, so their reciprocals shrink much faster: the thousandth term of the harmonic series is one thousandth, while the thousandth term of (1) is one millionth. Jakob Bernoulli turned that into a proof by comparing the series with one whose partial sums can be computed exactly.

Proposition 2 (J. Bernoulli [2]). The series (1) converges, and its sum lies between 1 and 2.

Proof. For n≥2n \ge 2 we have n2>n(n−1)n^2 > n(n-1), and therefore

1n2<1n(n−1)=1n−1−1n.\frac{1}{n^2} < \frac{1}{n(n-1)} = \frac{1}{n-1} - \frac{1}{n}.

Adding these from n=2n = 2 to NN, the right-hand side telescopes: almost every term cancels its neighbour, and only 1−1/N1 - 1/N is left. So the partial sums satisfy SN<1+(1−1/N)<2S_N < 1 + (1 - 1/N) < 2. They increase and are bounded, so they converge, and the limit is at least the first term, 1.

The telescoping is easiest to see written out. For N=4N = 4 the comparison sum is

11⋅2+12⋅3+13⋅4=(1−12)+(12−13)+(13−14)=1−14,\begin{aligned} &\frac{1}{1 \cdot 2} + \frac{1}{2 \cdot 3} + \frac{1}{3 \cdot 4} \\ &\quad = \left(1 - \tfrac{1}{2}\right) + \left(\tfrac{1}{2} - \tfrac{1}{3}\right) + \left(\tfrac{1}{3} - \tfrac{1}{4}\right) \\ &\quad = 1 - \tfrac{1}{4}, \end{aligned}

because each fraction subtracted in one bracket is added back in the next, and the sum collapses like the sections of a telescope sliding into one another. However many terms we take, only the first and the last survive.

Then there is the step from bounded to convergent, which is subtler than it looks. The partial sums only go up, since every term is positive, and they never pass 2. A sequence that keeps increasing but stays below a ceiling cannot wander: it has to crowd towards some number at or below the ceiling. That such a sequence always has a limit is a basic property of the real numbers, called completeness, and it is why the proof can promise a sum without saying what the sum is.

A strange answer

So the sum lies somewhere between 1 and 2, and the proof says nothing about where. That is the hard part, and it is the part Euler solved. The answer, which Sections 4 to 7 prove in four different ways, is this.

Theorem 3 (Euler, 1735). The sum of the reciprocals of the squares is π2/6\pi^2/6:

1+14+19+⋯=π26.(2)1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{9} + \cdots = \frac{\pi^2}{6}. \tag{2}

It is a strange answer. The number π\pi comes from circles: it is the ratio of a circle’s circumference to its diameter. Nothing in (1) mentions a circle, and the sum is built from whole numbers alone.

There is a second oddity, easier to miss. Every partial sum SNS_N is a fraction, a ratio of two whole numbers, yet their limit π2/6\pi^2/6 is irrational (Section 9 says why). The partial sums close in on a number that none of them can ever equal.

Every solution of the problem comes down to finding where the circle is hiding. Euler found it in the zeros of the sine.

Why the sum resisted

How slowly the terms run out

An engineer’s first instinct is to add terms until the answer settles and then recognise the number. Here that instinct fails, and the comparison in Proposition 2 tells us how badly. What is missing after NN terms, the tail ∑n>N1/n2\sum_{n > N} 1/n^2, is squeezed between two telescoping sums. Since

1n(n+1)<1n2<1(n−1)n,\frac{1}{n(n+1)} < \frac{1}{n^2} < \frac{1}{(n-1)n},

and the outer sums, taken over nn from N+1N + 1 on, telescope to 1/(N+1)1/(N+1) and 1/N1/N,

1N+1<∑n>N1n2<1N.(3)\frac{1}{N+1} < \sum_{n > N} \frac{1}{n^2} < \frac{1}{N}. \tag{3}

There is a picture behind this. The terms 1/n21/n^2 are the heights of the curve y=1/x2y = 1/x^2 at the whole numbers, so adding them is like adding the areas of rectangles of width 1 that sit under the curve. The area under the curve from NN to infinity is ∫N∞dx/x2=1/N\int_N^\infty dx/x^2 = 1/N, and the rectangles fill most of it, so the tail is just under 1/N1/N.

The error after NN terms is therefore about 1/N1/N, and each further correct digit costs ten times as many terms. A thousand terms give 1.643935, of which only the first three digits are right (Table 1). Six correct decimals would take about two million terms. Adding terms and guessing was hopeless in the seventeenth century, and it would still be slow today.

Partial sums of the series. The error left after NN terms is close to 1/N1/N, as (3) predicts.
Terms NN Partial sum SNS_N Error times NN
1010 1.549768 0.951663
10210^2 1.634984 0.995017
10310^3 1.643935 0.999500
10410^4 1.644834 0.999950
10510^5 1.644924 0.999995
10610^6 1.644933 1.000000

The last column multiplies the error by NN. It settles at 1, which is (3) at work: a hundred times more terms buy two more digits.

Euler’s shortcut

Euler found a way round this before he found the answer. In 1731 he computed the sum to six decimals, 1.644934, by turning the series into others that converge much faster [5]. The idea behind such accelerations can be seen in the tail. Instead of only trapping it between 1/(N+1)1/(N+1) and 1/N1/N, we can describe it more and more exactly, as 1/N1/N plus corrections in higher and higher powers of 1/N1/N:

∑n>N1n2=1N−12N2+16N3−130N5+⋯(4)\begin{aligned} \sum_{n > N} \frac{1}{n^2} &= \frac{1}{N} - \frac{1}{2N^2} \\ &\qquad + \frac{1}{6N^3} - \frac{1}{30N^5} + \cdots \end{aligned} \tag{4}

The first term is the area under the curve from the picture above. Then comes a correction of half a term, the kind the trapezoid rule makes when it replaces a curve by straight segments, and the later terms correct the correction. This is an instance of what is now called the Euler–Maclaurin formula, which relates sums to integrals in general. Continued forever, the expansion would diverge, but its first few terms are remarkably accurate. The numbers 16\frac16 and −130-\frac{1}{30} in it are Bernoulli numbers; they come back in Section 9.

Adding the first three corrections to just ten terms of the series gives 1.64493440, correct to six decimals, where the raw sum of ten terms is not correct to even one. Ten terms and a little algebra do the work of two million terms of brute force.

Digits are not a formula

Digits alone, though, do not name a number. Six decimals narrow the possibilities without deciding between them, and nothing in 1.644934 announces a π\pi, let alone a π2\pi^2. In hindsight the clue is there: multiply 1.644934 by 6 and take the square root, and out comes 3.141592…, the first seven digits of π\pi. But nobody would try that particular pair of operations without already suspecting the answer. What the digits gave Euler was a target that any formula would have to hit. The formula itself needed an idea, and his came from the sine.

Euler’s discovery, 1735

In 1735 Euler found the value [3] with an argument that takes a fact about polynomials and applies it where it has no right to apply. It gave him the answer, though not yet a proof.

Polynomials and their roots

A polynomial is determined, up to a constant factor, by its roots. If a polynomial pp of degree dd has the nonzero roots r1,…,rdr_1, \dots, r_d and takes the value 1 at x=0x = 0, then

p(x)=(1−xr1)(1−xr2)⋯(1−xrd).p(x) = \left(1 - \frac{x}{r_1}\right)\left(1 - \frac{x}{r_2}\right) \cdots \left(1 - \frac{x}{r_d}\right).

Each factor vanishes at one root and equals 1 at 0, so the product has the right roots and the right value at 0, and a polynomial of degree dd with dd given roots has no freedom left beyond a constant factor.

Multiplying out this product connects the roots with the coefficients. To get the term in xx, take the xx from one factor and the 1 from every other; so the coefficient of xx is −(1/r1+⋯+1/rd)-(1/r_1 + \cdots + 1/r_d), minus the sum of the reciprocals of the roots. With two roots, 2 and 3:

(1−x2)(1−x3)=1−(12+13)x+x26.\left(1 - \frac{x}{2}\right)\left(1 - \frac{x}{3}\right) = 1 - \left(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3}\right)x + \frac{x^2}{6}.

Knowing the roots of a polynomial tells us sums of reciprocals of its roots, and the Basel problem asks for exactly such a sum. The question becomes: which function has roots whose reciprocals, squared, are the numbers 1/n21/n^2?

The sine as a polynomial of infinite degree

The sine vanishes at every multiple of π\pi: at 0, at ±π\pm\pi, at ±2π\pm 2\pi, and so on. Dividing by xx removes the root at 0 and leaves a function that equals 1 there, since sin⁡x/x\sin x / x approaches 1 as xx approaches 0. The function sin⁡x/x\sin x / x therefore vanishes exactly at x=±π,±2π,±3π,…x = \pm\pi, \pm 2\pi, \pm 3\pi, \dots, and takes the value 1 at the origin, just like the polynomial pp above.

Euler treated sin⁡x/x\sin x / x as if it were a polynomial of infinite degree with these roots. Pairing each root nπn\pi with its negative −nπ-n\pi gives a factor in x2x^2 alone,

(1−xnπ)(1+xnπ)=1−x2n2π2,\left(1 - \frac{x}{n\pi}\right)\left(1 + \frac{x}{n\pi}\right) = 1 - \frac{x^2}{n^2\pi^2},

and multiplying all of them together, he wrote

sin⁡xx=(1−x2π2)(1−x24π2)×(1−x29π2)⋯(5)\begin{aligned} \frac{\sin x}{x} &= \left(1 - \frac{x^2}{\pi^2}\right)\left(1 - \frac{x^2}{4\pi^2}\right) \\ &\qquad \times \left(1 - \frac{x^2}{9\pi^2}\right)\cdots \end{aligned} \tag{5}

Here is the circle. The roots of the sine are the multiples of π\pi, so the reciprocals of the squared roots are 1π2⋅1n2\frac{1}{\pi^2} \cdot \frac{1}{n^2}: our series, divided by π2\pi^2.

The same function, written twice

There is a second way to write sin⁡x/x\sin x / x as a polynomial of infinite degree: its Taylor series. The Taylor series of a function at 0 is the power series whose coefficients match all the function’s derivatives there. The derivatives of the sine cycle through sin⁡\sin, cos⁡\cos, −sin⁡-\sin and −cos⁡-\cos, whose values at 0 are 0, 1, 0 and −1-1, and so

sin⁡x=x−x33!+x55!−⋯=x−x36+x5120−⋯\sin x = x - \frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^5}{5!} - \cdots = x - \frac{x^3}{6} + \frac{x^5}{120} - \cdots

for every xx. Dividing by xx,

sin⁡xx=1−x26+x4120−⋯(6)\frac{\sin x}{x} = 1 - \frac{x^2}{6} + \frac{x^4}{120} - \cdots \tag{6}

Unlike the product, this series stands on solid ground; nobody doubts it. The trick is to put the two side by side.

Comparing coefficients

Multiply out the product (5) and collect the terms in x2x^2. With only the first two factors,

(1−x2π2)(1−x24π2)=1−1π2(1+14)x2+x44π4.\left(1 - \frac{x^2}{\pi^2}\right)\left(1 - \frac{x^2}{4\pi^2}\right) = 1 - \frac{1}{\pi^2}\left(1 + \frac{1}{4}\right)x^2 + \frac{x^4}{4\pi^4}.

Each further factor 1−x2/(n2π2)1 - x^2/(n^2\pi^2) adds −1/(n2π2)-1/(n^2\pi^2) to the coefficient of x2x^2, because the only way to get a term in x2x^2 is to take it from one factor and 1 from all the others. With all the factors, the coefficient of x2x^2 is

−1π2(1+14+19+⋯ ).-\frac{1}{\pi^2}\left(1 + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{9} + \cdots\right).

In (6) the same coefficient is −16-\frac16. If the two expressions are the same function, their coefficients must agree, and setting them equal,

−1π2∑n=1∞1n2=−16,-\frac{1}{\pi^2} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} = -\frac{1}{6},

gives (2) at once. The value π2/6=1.644 934 066…\pi^2/6 = 1.644\,934\,066\ldots agreed with every digit Euler had computed.

Remark. Write ζ(s)=∑n≥11/ns\zeta(s) = \sum_{n \ge 1} 1/n^s, the function Riemann later made famous, so that the Basel problem asks for ζ(2)\zeta(2). The same comparison one power higher gives ζ(4)\zeta(4). In the product, a term in x4x^4 comes from choosing the x2x^2 terms of two different factors, so its coefficient is the sum of 1/(m2n2π4)1/(m^2 n^2 \pi^4) over all pairs m<nm < n. That sum of products is half of ζ(2)2−ζ(4)\zeta(2)^2 - \zeta(4), divided by π4\pi^4, and it must equal 1120\frac{1}{120}, the coefficient in (6). So ζ(2)2−ζ(4)=π4/60\zeta(2)^2 - \zeta(4) = \pi^4/60, and ζ(4)=π4/36−π4/60=π4/90\zeta(4) = \pi^4/36 - \pi^4/60 = \pi^4/90. Each further power gives the next even value (Section 9).

The gap

As a proof, the argument has a gap, and it is a real one: a function is not determined by its zeros. Polynomials are, because a polynomial of degree dd has exactly dd roots and nothing else to adjust. Functions defined by infinite series have more freedom. The function exsin⁡x/xe^x \sin x / x vanishes at exactly the same points as sin⁡x/x\sin x / x, because exe^x is never zero, yet its Taylor series begins

ex⋅sin⁡xx=(1+x+x22+⋯ )(1−x26+⋯ )=1+x+x23+⋯ ,\begin{aligned} e^x \cdot \frac{\sin x}{x} &= \left(1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \cdots\right)\left(1 - \frac{x^2}{6} + \cdots\right) \\ &= 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{3} + \cdots, \end{aligned}

with 13\frac13 where the sine has −16-\frac16. Euler’s argument, applied to this function, would give nonsense. So something special about the sine must rule out such an extra factor.

The explanation came only with Weierstrass’s factorization theorem of 1876 [6]. A function given by a power series that converges for every xx can be written as a product over its zeros, up to one extra factor of the form eg(x)e^{g(x)}, which has no zeros at all. For the sine one can show that this extra factor is 1, and then (5) holds exactly as Euler wrote it.

Euler knew the gap was there. The digits convinced him, so he did what mathematicians still do with a result they believe but cannot yet prove: he kept looking for another way in.

Euler’s proof, 1741

The argument Euler wrote down in 1741 and published in 1743 [7] avoids infinite products altogether. It rests on one of the most useful habits in mathematics: computing the same quantity in two different ways, and reading off what the agreement says.

One integral, two ways

The quantity is an integral,

∫01arcsin⁡x1−x2 dx.\int_0^1 \frac{\arcsin x}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}\, dx.

Computed one way, it is π2/8\pi^2/8. Computed the other way, term by term from a power series, it is the sum of the reciprocals of the odd squares, 1+19+125+⋯1 + \frac19 + \frac{1}{25} + \cdots. The two answers must be the same number, and from the odd squares the full sum follows in one line. To carry this out we need three facts: the derivative of the arcsine, its power series, and a family of integrals known today as Wallis integrals.

The arcsine and its series

The arcsine undoes the sine: for xx between −1-1 and 1, arcsin⁡x\arcsin x is the angle between −π/2-\pi/2 and π/2\pi/2 whose sine is xx. Differentiating the identity sin⁡(arcsin⁡x)=x\sin(\arcsin x) = x gives cos⁡(arcsin⁡x)⋅(arcsin⁡x)′=1\cos(\arcsin x) \cdot (\arcsin x)' = 1, and the cosine of that angle is 1−x2\sqrt{1 - x^2}, so

ddxarcsin⁡x=11−x2.\frac{d}{dx} \arcsin x = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}.

This settles the first computation. The integrand arcsin⁡x/1−x2\arcsin x / \sqrt{1 - x^2} is the derivative of 12(arcsin⁡x)2\frac12 (\arcsin x)^2, so its integral from 0 to 1 is 12(arcsin⁡1)2=12(π/2)2=π2/8\frac12 (\arcsin 1)^2 = \frac12 (\pi/2)^2 = \pi^2/8.

For the second computation we need arcsin⁡x\arcsin x as a power series. Its coefficients are built from the products of the odd and the even numbers, so it helps to give them a name:

cn=1⋅3⋯(2n−1)2⋅4⋯(2n),c0=1,c1=12,c2=38,c3=516.\begin{gathered} c_n = \frac{1 \cdot 3 \cdots (2n-1)}{2 \cdot 4 \cdots (2n)}, \\ c_0 = 1, \quad c_1 = \frac{1}{2}, \quad c_2 = \frac{3}{8}, \quad c_3 = \frac{5}{16}. \end{gathered}

The binomial series expands, for ∣t∣<1|t| < 1,

11−t=∑n=0∞cntn=1+12 t+38 t2+⋯\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - t}} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} c_n t^n = 1 + \frac{1}{2}\, t + \frac{3}{8}\, t^2 + \cdots

Put t=x2t = x^2 and integrate term by term from 0 to xx. Since the left-hand side becomes the derivative of the arcsine, this gives, for 0≤x<10 \le x < 1,

arcsin⁡x=∑n=0∞cn x2n+12n+1.(7)\arcsin x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} c_n \, \frac{x^{2n+1}}{2n+1}. \tag{7}

Keep an eye on the products of odd and even numbers inside cnc_n: another pair of the same kind is about to appear, upside down.

Wallis integrals

Lemma 4. For every integer n≥0n \ge 0,

∫01x2n+11−x2 dx=2⋅4⋯(2n)3⋅5⋯(2n+1),\int_0^1 \frac{x^{2n+1}}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}\, dx = \frac{2 \cdot 4 \cdots (2n)}{3 \cdot 5 \cdots (2n+1)},

where both products are 1 when n=0n = 0.

Proof. Substituting x=sin⁡tx = \sin t, so that dx=cos⁡t dtdx = \cos t\, dt and 1−x2=cos⁡t\sqrt{1 - x^2} = \cos t, turns the integral into In=∫0π/2sin⁡2n+1t dtI_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^{2n+1} t \, dt. For n=0n = 0 this is 1. For n≥1n \ge 1, write sin⁡2n+1t=sin⁡2nt⋅sin⁡t\sin^{2n+1} t = \sin^{2n} t \cdot \sin t and integrate by parts, differentiating sin⁡2nt\sin^{2n} t and integrating sin⁡t\sin t to −cos⁡t-\cos t. The boundary terms vanish, because cos⁡(π/2)=0\cos(\pi/2) = 0 and sin⁡0=0\sin 0 = 0, and with cos⁡2t=1−sin⁡2t\cos^2 t = 1 - \sin^2 t what remains is

In=2n∫0π/2sin⁡2n−1t cos⁡2t dt=2n(In−1−In).I_n = 2n \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^{2n-1} t \, \cos^2 t \, dt = 2n \left(I_{n-1} - I_n\right).

Solving for InI_n gives In=2n2n+1In−1I_n = \frac{2n}{2n+1} I_{n-1}, and repeating this down to I0=1I_0 = 1 gives the product.

The first few values are I0=1I_0 = 1, I1=23I_1 = \frac23, I2=815I_2 = \frac{8}{15} and I3=1635I_3 = \frac{16}{35}.

Putting the pieces together

Proof of Theorem 3, after Euler (1741). Divide both sides of (7) by 1−x2\sqrt{1 - x^2} and integrate from 0 to 1. The left-hand side gives π2/8\pi^2/8, as computed above. On the right, every term is nonnegative, so the series may be integrated term by term, and by Lemma 4 the nn-th term becomes

cn⋅12n+1⋅2⋅4⋯(2n)3⋅5⋯(2n+1)=1⋅3⋯(2n−1)(2n+1)⋅3⋅5⋯(2n+1)=1(2n+1)2.\begin{aligned} &c_n \cdot \frac{1}{2n+1} \cdot \frac{2 \cdot 4 \cdots (2n)}{3 \cdot 5 \cdots (2n+1)} \\ &\qquad = \frac{1 \cdot 3 \cdots (2n-1)}{(2n+1) \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots (2n+1)} = \frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}. \end{aligned}

So the odd squares sum to π2/8\pi^2/8. The even squares contribute ∑1/(2m)2=14∑1/m2\sum 1/(2m)^2 = \frac{1}{4} \sum 1/m^2, hence ∑1/n2=π2/8+14∑1/n2\sum 1/n^2 = \pi^2/8 + \frac{1}{4} \sum 1/n^2, and ∑1/n2=43⋅π28=π26\sum 1/n^2 = \frac{4}{3} \cdot \frac{\pi^2}{8} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}.

The cancellation in the middle is the heart of the proof, and small cases show it at work. For n=1n = 1 the arcsine coefficient is c1=12c_1 = \frac12, divided by 3, and the Wallis integral is I1=23I_1 = \frac23, so the term is 12⋅13⋅23=19\frac12 \cdot \frac13 \cdot \frac23 = \frac19. For n=2n = 2 it is 38⋅15⋅815=125\frac38 \cdot \frac15 \cdot \frac{8}{15} = \frac{1}{25}. The coefficients of the arcsine and the Wallis integrals are built from the same odd and even products, one upside down relative to the other, and they cancel almost completely, leaving only 1/(2n+1)21/(2n+1)^2. Both come from the sine, the coefficients through its inverse and the integrals through its powers, so it is no surprise that they fit.

Why only the odd squares? Because the arcsine series contains only odd powers. That costs nothing. The even squares 14+116+136+⋯\frac14 + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{36} + \cdots are 14\frac14 of the whole sum, since 1/(2m)2=14⋅1/m21/(2m)^2 = \frac14 \cdot 1/m^2, so the odd squares are the other three quarters, and the last line of the proof undoes the split.

Why it convinced his readers

Every step used tools Euler’s readers already trusted: a power series, an integral and a substitution. There is no infinite product and no assumption about zeros. One step would be questioned today: integrating an infinite series term by term, which can go wrong in general. It was accepted practice then; the modern justification, that the terms are nonnegative (the monotone convergence theorem), came much later.

Cauchy’s proof, 1821

The proof below is Cauchy’s, from his Cours d’analyse of 1821 [8]; Proofs from THE BOOK devotes a chapter to this sum and its proofs [9]. It is a model of economy: no integrals and no infinite products, only trigonometry, the binomial theorem and one limit at the end. Its plan fits in two sentences. For a small angle xx, the three numbers sin⁡x\sin x, xx and tan⁡x\tan x are nearly equal, so 1/x21/x^2 is trapped between two trigonometric expressions. If we choose the angles cleverly, those expressions can be summed exactly, and then the trap closes on the partial sums of (1).

A squeeze between three functions

Draw a circle of radius 1 and an angle xx between 0 and π/2\pi/2 at its centre. Three regions sit one inside the next: a triangle inside the sector, with area 12sin⁡x\frac12 \sin x; the sector of the circle, with area 12x\frac12 x; and the right triangle whose far side touches the circle, with area 12tan⁡x\frac12 \tan x. Their areas are therefore in order,

sin⁡x<x<tan⁡xfor 0<x<π/2.\sin x < x < \tan x \qquad \text{for } 0 < x < \pi/2.

Taking reciprocals reverses the inequalities, and squaring keeps them, so 1/tan⁡2x<1/x2<1/sin⁡2x1/\tan^2 x < 1/x^2 < 1/\sin^2 x. In terms of the cotangent, cot⁡x=cos⁡x/sin⁡x\cot x = \cos x / \sin x, this reads

cot⁡2x<1x2<1+cot⁡2x,\cot^2 x < \frac{1}{x^2} < 1 + \cot^2 x,

since 1/sin⁡2x=(sin⁡2x+cos⁡2x)/sin⁡2x=1+cot⁡2x1/\sin^2 x = (\sin^2 x + \cos^2 x)/\sin^2 x = 1 + \cot^2 x. Added up over well-chosen angles, the middle term will produce the Basel series, and what we need is the sum of cot⁡2x\cot^2 x over the same angles.

Summing cotangents exactly

Why should such a sum be computable? The angles kπ/(2m+1)k\pi/(2m+1), for k=1,…,mk = 1, \dots, m, are exactly the points between 0 and π/2\pi/2 where sin⁡((2m+1)x)\sin((2m+1)x) vanishes. De Moivre’s formula, (cos⁡x+isin⁡x)n=cos⁡nx+isin⁡nx(\cos x + i \sin x)^n = \cos nx + i \sin nx, writes sin⁡nx\sin nx as the imaginary part of (cos⁡x+isin⁡x)n(\cos x + i \sin x)^n, and expanding that power with the binomial theorem turns sin⁡((2m+1)x)\sin((2m+1)x), divided by a power of sin⁡x\sin x, into a polynomial in cot⁡2x\cot^2 x. So the numbers cot⁡2(kπ/(2m+1))\cot^2(k\pi/(2m+1)) are the roots of a polynomial we can write down.

Vieta’s formulas then give their sum without our computing a single cotangent. For a polynomial amtm+am−1tm−1+⋯a_m t^m + a_{m-1} t^{m-1} + \cdots with roots t1,…,tmt_1, \dots, t_m, the roots add up to −am−1/am-a_{m-1}/a_m; this is the same bookkeeping as in Section 3, where the coefficient of xx recorded the sum of the reciprocals of the roots.

Lemma 5. For every integer m≥1m \ge 1,

∑k=1mcot⁡2kπ2m+1=m(2m−1)3.\sum_{k=1}^{m} \cot^2 \frac{k\pi}{2m+1} = \frac{m(2m-1)}{3}.

Proof. Let n=2m+1n = 2m + 1 and 0<x<π/20 < x < \pi/2. By de Moivre’s formula, sin⁡nx\sin nx is the imaginary part of (cos⁡x+isin⁡x)n(\cos x + i \sin x)^n. Expanding with the binomial theorem and dividing by sin⁡nx\sin^n x gives

sin⁡nxsin⁡nx=∑j=0m(−1)j(n2j+1)(cot⁡2x)m−j.\frac{\sin nx}{\sin^n x} = \sum_{j=0}^{m} (-1)^j \binom{n}{2j+1} \left(\cot^2 x\right)^{m-j}.

At xk=kπ/nx_k = k\pi/n, for k=1,…,mk = 1, \dots, m, the left-hand side vanishes, since sin⁡nxk=sin⁡kπ=0\sin n x_k = \sin k\pi = 0. So the mm numbers tk=cot⁡2xkt_k = \cot^2 x_k are roots of the polynomial

P(t)=(n1)tm−(n3)tm−1+(n5)tm−2−⋯ ,P(t) = \binom{n}{1} t^m - \binom{n}{3} t^{m-1} + \binom{n}{5} t^{m-2} - \cdots,

and they are distinct, because cot⁡2\cot^2 is strictly decreasing on (0,π/2)(0, \pi/2). A polynomial of degree mm has no other roots, so by Vieta’s formulas the sum of the tkt_k is minus the ratio of the two leading coefficients:

∑k=1mtk=(n3)/(n1)=(2m+1) 2m (2m−1)6 (2m+1)=m(2m−1)3.\begin{aligned} \sum_{k=1}^{m} t_k &= \binom{n}{3} \Big/ \binom{n}{1} \\ &= \frac{(2m+1)\,2m\,(2m-1)}{6\,(2m+1)} = \frac{m(2m-1)}{3}. \end{aligned}

The lemma is easy to test. For m=1m = 1 it says cot⁡2(π/3)=13\cot^2(\pi/3) = \frac13, and indeed cot⁡(π/3)=1/3\cot(\pi/3) = 1/\sqrt3. For m=2m = 2 it says cot⁡2(π/5)+cot⁡2(2π/5)=2\cot^2(\pi/5) + \cot^2(2\pi/5) = 2; numerically the two terms are 1.8944 and 0.1056. For m=3m = 3 the three squared cotangents add up to exactly 5.

Closing the squeeze

Proof of Theorem 3, after Cauchy (1821). For 0<x<π/20 < x < \pi/2 we have sin⁡x<x<tan⁡x\sin x < x < \tan x, and hence cot⁡2x<1/x2<1+cot⁡2x\cot^2 x < 1/x^2 < 1 + \cot^2 x. Apply this at the mm points xk=kπ/(2m+1)x_k = k\pi/(2m+1) and add. By Lemma 5,

m(2m−1)3<(2m+1)2π2∑k=1m1k2<m+m(2m−1)3.\frac{m(2m-1)}{3} < \frac{(2m+1)^2}{\pi^2} \sum_{k=1}^{m} \frac{1}{k^2} < m + \frac{m(2m-1)}{3}.

Multiplying by π2/(2m+1)2\pi^2/(2m+1)^2 traps the partial sum SmS_m between π2m(2m−1)/3(2m+1)2\pi^2 m(2m-1) / 3(2m+1)^2 and π2 2m(m+1)/3(2m+1)2\pi^2\, 2m(m+1) / 3(2m+1)^2. As m→∞m \to \infty both bounds tend to 2π2/12=π2/62\pi^2/12 = \pi^2/6, and so does SmS_m.

Why do both bounds close on π2/6\pi^2/6? For large mm, the numerator m(2m−1)m(2m-1) behaves like 2m22m^2 and the denominator 3(2m+1)23(2m+1)^2 like 12m212m^2, so the lower bound approaches π2⋅2/12=π2/6\pi^2 \cdot 2/12 = \pi^2/6, and the upper bound does the same. The upper bound is in fact exactly π26(1−1(2m+1)2)\frac{\pi^2}{6}\bigl(1 - \frac{1}{(2m+1)^2}\bigr), so it approaches the limit quickly: for m=1000m = 1000 it falls short of π2/6\pi^2/6 by only 4×10−74 \times 10^{-7}.

The proof needs no calculus beyond one limit at the end, no infinite products, and nothing from complex analysis except de Moivre’s formula. What it costs is some algebra, and a determined student can check every line of it.

By Fourier series

In the nineteenth century Fourier showed how to write a function as a sum of sines and cosines [10], and his idea gives a proof that explains as much as it computes.

Functions as sums of waves

A Fourier series writes a function on the interval (−π,π)(-\pi, \pi) as a combination of waves whose frequencies are whole numbers:

f(x)=a02+∑n=1∞(ancos⁡nx+bnsin⁡nx).f(x) = \frac{a_0}{2} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(a_n \cos nx + b_n \sin nx\right).

The coefficients measure how much of each wave the function contains, and they are computed by integrals:

an=1π∫−ππf(x)cos⁡nx dx,bn=1π∫−ππf(x)sin⁡nx dx.\begin{gathered} a_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x) \cos nx \, dx, \\ b_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x) \sin nx \, dx. \end{gathered}

An engineer would call them the spectrum of ff: they say how strongly each frequency is present.

Perpendicular functions

Why do those integrals pick out the coefficients? Because the waves are perpendicular to one another, in a sense that can be made precise. For two functions on (−π,π)(-\pi, \pi), take 1π∫−ππf(x)g(x) dx\frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x) g(x) \, dx as their inner product; it plays the role of the dot product of two vectors. For whole numbers m,n≥1m, n \ge 1, the identity sin⁡mxsin⁡nx=12(cos⁡(m−n)x−cos⁡(m+n)x)\sin mx \sin nx = \frac12\bigl(\cos(m-n)x - \cos(m+n)x\bigr) shows that

1π∫−ππsin⁡mx sin⁡nx dx={1if m=n,0if m≠n,\frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin mx \, \sin nx \, dx = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } m = n, \\ 0 & \text{if } m \ne n, \end{cases}

because the cosine of a nonzero whole multiple of xx integrates to zero over a full period. The same holds for the cosines, and every sine is perpendicular to every cosine. So the waves behave like unit vectors along the axes of a space with infinitely many directions, and the coefficient bnb_n is the component of ff along sin⁡nx\sin nx, found by an inner product exactly as the component of a vector is found by a dot product.

Pythagoras in infinitely many dimensions

In the plane, a vector with coordinates (3,4)(3, 4) has length 5, because 32+42=523^2 + 4^2 = 5^2. In space, the vector (1,2,2)(1, 2, 2) has length 3, because 1+4+4=91 + 4 + 4 = 9. Whenever the axes are perpendicular, the square of the length is the sum of the squares of the coordinates. Parseval’s identity says the same thing for functions [11]: the squared length of ff, measured by the integral of f2f^2, is the sum of the squares of its coordinates along the waves,

1π∫−ππf(x)2 dx=a022+∑n=1∞(an2+bn2).(8)\begin{aligned} &\frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x)^2 \, dx \\ &\qquad = \frac{a_0^2}{2} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(a_n^2 + b_n^2\right). \end{aligned} \tag{8}

The a02/2a_0^2/2 comes from the constant term, whose own length is not 1; that is bookkeeping. The substance of the identity, and the real analysis in this proof, is that no length is lost in the infinite sum: the waves are enough to build every function whose square has a finite integral, so its coordinates account for all of it.

The function x

So the question becomes: which simple function has coordinates whose squares are 1/n21/n^2? The answer is the simplest function there is.

Proposition 6. On (−π,π)(-\pi, \pi), the function f(x)=xf(x) = x has the Fourier series

x=2∑n=1∞(−1)n+1nsin⁡nx.x = 2 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n} \sin nx.

Proof. The function is odd, f(−x)=−f(x)f(-x) = -f(x), and the cosine is even, so each ana_n is the integral of an odd function over an interval symmetric about 0, which is 0. For bnb_n, integrate by parts, differentiating xx and integrating sin⁡nx\sin nx to −cos⁡(nx)/n-\cos(nx)/n:

∫−ππxsin⁡nx dx=[−xcos⁡nxn]−ππ+1n∫−ππcos⁡nx dx=−2πcos⁡nπn+0.\begin{aligned} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} x \sin nx \, dx &= \left[-\frac{x \cos nx}{n}\right]_{-\pi}^{\pi} + \frac{1}{n} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \cos nx \, dx \\ &= -\frac{2\pi \cos n\pi}{n} + 0. \end{aligned}

Since cos⁡nπ=(−1)n\cos n\pi = (-1)^n, this is 2π(−1)n+1/n2\pi(-1)^{n+1}/n, and bn=2(−1)n+1/nb_n = 2(-1)^{n+1}/n.

Repeated periodically, the function xx on (−π,π)(-\pi, \pi) becomes a sawtooth: it climbs steadily, drops back, and climbs again. The proposition says that a sawtooth is built from sine waves whose strength falls off like 1/n1/n, and the squares of those strengths are, up to a factor 4, the terms of the Basel series.

The sum as a squared length

Proof of Theorem 3, by Parseval’s identity. Apply (8) to f(x)=xf(x) = x. The left-hand side is 1π⋅2π33=2π23\frac{1}{\pi} \cdot \frac{2\pi^3}{3} = \frac{2\pi^2}{3}, and by Proposition 6 the right-hand side is ∑4/n2\sum 4/n^2. So ∑1/n2=2π23⋅14=π26\sum 1/n^2 = \frac{2\pi^2}{3} \cdot \frac{1}{4} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}.

Seen this way, the Basel sum is the squared length of a straight line, f(x)=xf(x) = x, measured in the coordinates of waves, and π\pi enters because waves are periodic with period 2π2\pi. The whole weight of the proof rests on Parseval’s identity, which is where the real analysis lies. Applied to other functions, the same computation gives every even value ζ(2k)\zeta(2k); the polynomials that play the role of xx are the Bernoulli polynomials.

By a double integral

The last proof turns the sum into an area. It was found in 1983 in a version by Apostol [12], and in the form below by Beukers, Calabi and Kolk in 1993 [13]. The idea has two steps. First, write the sum as an integral over a square. Then find a change of variables that makes the integrand disappear, so that only an area is left.

From a sum to an area

The geometric series 1+q+q2+⋯=1/(1−q)1 + q + q^2 + \cdots = 1/(1 - q), valid for ∣q∣<1|q| < 1, turns a fraction into a sum. With q=x2y2q = x^2 y^2, where xx and yy lie between 0 and 1, it gives

11−x2y2=1+x2y2+x4y4+⋯ ,\frac{1}{1 - x^2 y^2} = 1 + x^2 y^2 + x^4 y^4 + \cdots,

and each term is easy to integrate over the unit square, because it splits into a function of xx times a function of yy: the integral of x2ky2kx^{2k} y^{2k} is ∫01x2kdx⋅∫01y2kdy=12k+1⋅12k+1\int_0^1 x^{2k} dx \cdot \int_0^1 y^{2k} dy = \frac{1}{2k+1} \cdot \frac{1}{2k+1}.

Lemma 7.

∫01 ⁣ ⁣∫01dx dy1−x2y2=∑k=0∞1(2k+1)2.(9)\begin{aligned} &\int_0^1 \!\! \int_0^1 \frac{dx \, dy}{1 - x^2 y^2} \\ &\qquad = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2k+1)^2}. \end{aligned} \tag{9}

Proof. For 0≤x,y<10 \le x, y < 1, expand 1/(1−x2y2)=∑k≥0x2ky2k1/(1 - x^2y^2) = \sum_{k \ge 0} x^{2k} y^{2k}. The terms are nonnegative, so the series may be integrated term by term, and ∫01∫01x2ky2k dx dy=1/(2k+1)2\int_0^1 \int_0^1 x^{2k} y^{2k} \, dx \, dy = 1/(2k+1)^2.

So the odd squares are an integral over a square. It remains to compute that integral.

Changing variables

An integral over a region can be computed in any coordinates, provided we account for how the new coordinates stretch area. The familiar example is polar coordinates: a small patch of size dr×dθdr \times d\theta at distance rr from the origin has area r dr dθr \, dr \, d\theta, not dr dθdr \, d\theta, because arcs far from the centre are longer. In general, if xx and yy are functions of new variables uu and vv, a small rectangle du×dvdu \times dv is carried to a small parallelogram whose area is ∣∂(x,y)/∂(u,v)∣ du dv\bigl|\partial(x, y)/\partial(u, v)\bigr| \, du \, dv, where

∂(x,y)∂(u,v)=∂x∂u∂y∂v−∂x∂v∂y∂u\frac{\partial(x, y)}{\partial(u, v)} = \frac{\partial x}{\partial u} \frac{\partial y}{\partial v} - \frac{\partial x}{\partial v} \frac{\partial y}{\partial u}

is the Jacobian determinant of the change of variables. For polar coordinates it is rr.

Calabi’s substitution is designed so that this factor is exactly 1−x2y21 - x^2 y^2, the denominator of the integrand. The two cancel, and the integral becomes the area of the region we started from.

Calabi’s substitution

Proof of Theorem 3, by a double integral. Change variables by

x=sin⁡ucos⁡v,y=sin⁡vcos⁡u.x = \frac{\sin u}{\cos v}, \qquad y = \frac{\sin v}{\cos u}.

This maps the open triangle T={ u>0, v>0, u+v<π/2 }T = \{\, u > 0,\ v > 0,\ u + v < \pi/2 \,\} one-to-one onto the open unit square: its inverse is tan⁡u=x(1−y2)/(1−x2)\tan u = x \sqrt{(1 - y^2)/(1 - x^2)}, tan⁡v=y(1−x2)/(1−y2)\tan v = y \sqrt{(1 - x^2)/(1 - y^2)}, as direct substitution shows. Its Jacobian determinant is

∂(x,y)∂(u,v)=∣cos⁡ucos⁡vsin⁡usin⁡vcos⁡2vsin⁡usin⁡vcos⁡2ucos⁡vcos⁡u∣=1−sin⁡2u sin⁡2vcos⁡2u cos⁡2v=1−x2y2,\begin{aligned} \frac{\partial(x, y)}{\partial(u, v)} &= \begin{vmatrix} \dfrac{\cos u}{\cos v} & \dfrac{\sin u \sin v}{\cos^2 v} \\[1em] \dfrac{\sin u \sin v}{\cos^2 u} & \dfrac{\cos v}{\cos u} \end{vmatrix} \\ &= 1 - \frac{\sin^2 u \, \sin^2 v}{\cos^2 u \, \cos^2 v} = 1 - x^2 y^2, \end{aligned}

which is exactly the denominator in (9). So the integrand becomes 1, and the integral is the area of TT, which is 12(π2)2=π28\frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)^2 = \frac{\pi^2}{8}. The odd squares sum to π2/8\pi^2/8, and the even ones follow as in Euler’s proof.

This time π\pi enters as the length of the legs of a right triangle, π/2\pi/2, and the Basel sum is four thirds of that triangle’s area. Two of the proofs meet at the same number, π2/8\pi^2/8 for the odd squares, from opposite directions: Euler’s by an integral in one variable, this one by an area in two. Integrals of this kind reach further, too, as Section 9 shows.

Where the π comes from

Five routes to π2/6\pi^2/6, from 1735 to 1993.
Route Year Tool Leads to
Euler’s product 1735 the sine as an infinite product every ζ(2k)\zeta(2k); rigorous after 1876
Euler’s arcsine integral 1741 a power series and an integral the odd squares, π2/8\pi^2/8
Cauchy’s squeeze 1821 trigonometry and two inequalities higher even powers, with more algebra
Parseval’s identity 19th c. Fourier series every ζ(2k)\zeta(2k), via Bernoulli polynomials
A double integral 1983–93 a change of variables ζ(2k)\zeta(2k) as volumes; integrals for ζ(3)\zeta(3)

Each route answers the question “where does π\pi come from?” differently. For Euler’s product, it is the spacing of the zeros of the sine. For the arcsine proof, it is the angle π/2\pi/2 whose sine is 1. For Cauchy, it is the angles at which sin⁡((2m+1)x)\sin((2m+1)x) vanishes. For Parseval, it is the period of the waves; for the double integral, the legs of a triangle. It is the same circle every time, met from five directions.

What “solved” meant, and what is still open

Four meanings of solved

In 1735 Euler had the answer and good reason to trust it. By 1741 he had a proof his contemporaries could check step by step. By today’s standards it was secured in the nineteenth century, when limit and convergence, which every one of these arguments quietly relies on, were finally made precise. And it has been proved again every few decades since, each new proof a small lesson in a different part of mathematics.

The even powers

Euler’s method [3] also reaches every even value, because each further coefficient of (5) gives the next even sum, as the remark in Section 3 showed for ζ(4)\zeta(4). In the form he later gave it,

ζ(2k)=(−1)k+1B2k(2π)2k2 (2k)!,ζ(2)=π26,ζ(4)=π490,ζ(6)=π6945,\begin{gathered} \zeta(2k) = \frac{(-1)^{k+1} B_{2k} (2\pi)^{2k}}{2\,(2k)!}, \\ \zeta(2) = \frac{\pi^2}{6}, \quad \zeta(4) = \frac{\pi^4}{90}, \quad \zeta(6) = \frac{\pi^6}{945}, \end{gathered}

where B2=1/6B_2 = 1/6, B4=−1/30B_4 = -1/30, B6=1/42B_6 = 1/42, … are the Bernoulli numbers. They are the coefficients of the power series

xex−1=∑n=0∞Bnxnn!=1−x2+x212−x4720+⋯ ,\frac{x}{e^x - 1} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} B_n \frac{x^n}{n!} = 1 - \frac{x}{2} + \frac{x^2}{12} - \frac{x^4}{720} + \cdots,

and they turn up wherever sums of powers meet calculus: two of them already appeared in the tail expansion (4). So every even value is a rational number times a power of π\pi. And since π\pi is transcendental, not a root of any polynomial with whole-number coefficients, as Lindemann proved in 1882 [14], every one of these values is irrational.

Remark. The reciprocal 6/π2≈0.60796/\pi^2 \approx 0.6079 has a meaning of its own: it is the probability that two integers chosen at random have no common factor.2

The odd powers

For the odd values, nothing of the kind is known, and not for want of trying. To prove a number irrational is to prove that no fraction p/qp/q equals it, however large pp and qq are, and without a formula to work from that is hard. The first real progress came only in 1978, when Roger Apéry announced that ζ(3)=1.202 056 9…\zeta(3) = 1.202\,056\,9\ldots is irrational; the proof appeared the next year [15]. His talk was so sketchy that much of the audience dismissed it, but Henri Cohen, Hendrik Lenstra and Alfred van der Poorten set out to check the argument, and within two months it stood. Van der Poorten’s account [16] is still the most engaging way into it, and Beukers soon gave a shorter proof with integrals close to (9) [17]. Even so, no formula for ζ(3)\zeta(3) has been found, and nobody knows whether ζ(5)\zeta(5) is irrational. Rivoal showed that infinitely many of the odd values are irrational [18], and Zudilin that at least one of ζ(5)\zeta(5), ζ(7)\zeta(7), ζ(9)\zeta(9), ζ(11)\zeta(11) is [19].

What has not been solved, then, is the same question one power up. Nobody has found a closed form for 1+18+127+⋯1 + \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{27} + \cdots, the sum of the reciprocals of the cubes, and after almost three centuries that silence is itself a kind of information: whatever made the even powers yield to Euler does not reach the odd ones.

Try it

The numbers above take a few lines to reproduce. Adding the terms from the smallest up keeps the rounding error of floating-point arithmetic well below the digits that matter: a computer stores about sixteen significant digits, and adding a tiny term to a large running total throws most of the tiny term’s digits away, so it pays to add the tiny terms together first.

basel.ts
/** The partial sum S_n, added from the smallest term up, which keeps rounding error small. */
function partialSum(n: number): number {
let sum = 0;
for (let k = n; k >= 1; k--) sum += 1 / (k * k);
return sum;
}
/** Euler's estimate: S_n plus the first three terms of the tail. */
function eulerEstimate(n: number): number {
return partialSum(n) + 1 / n - 1 / (2 * n ** 2) + 1 / (6 * n ** 3);
}
console.log(partialSum(1000)); // 1.6439345666815597
console.log(eulerEstimate(10)); // 1.6449343978332076
console.log(Math.PI ** 2 / 6); // 1.6449340668482264

Ten terms and three corrections beat a thousand terms by three digits, and a hundred terms with the same corrections agree with π2/6\pi^2/6 to eleven decimal places.

References

  1. P. Mengoli, Novae quadraturae arithmeticae, Bologna, 1650.
  2. J. Bernoulli, Tractatus de seriebus infinitis, appended to his Ars conjectandi, Basel, 1713. It collects the dissertations on series he published from 1686 on.
  3. L. Euler, “De summis serierum reciprocarum,” Commentarii academiae scientiarum Petropolitanae 7 (1740), 123–134. Eneström index E41; facsimile in the Euler Archive.
  4. R. Ayoub, “Euler and the zeta function,” The American Mathematical Monthly 81 (1974), 1067–1086. doi:10.1080/00029890.1974.11993738
  5. L. Euler, “De summatione innumerabilium progressionum,” Commentarii academiae scientiarum Petropolitanae 5 (1738), 91–105. Written in 1731; Eneström index E20; facsimile in the Euler Archive.
  6. K. Weierstrass, “Zur Theorie der eindeutigen analytischen Functionen,” Abhandlungen der Königlich Preussischen Akademie der Wissenschaften zu Berlin (1876).
  7. L. Euler, “Démonstration de la somme de cette suite 1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + 1/16 + …,” Journal littéraire d’Allemagne, de Suisse et du Nord 2 (1743), 115–127. Written in 1741; Eneström index E63; facsimile in the Euler Archive.
  8. A.-L. Cauchy, Cours d’analyse de l’École royale polytechnique, Paris, 1821, Note VIII.
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Notes

  1. Bernoulli ended his discussion of the series with a plea: whoever found its sum and sent it to him would have his gratitude. ↑

  2. Two integers are coprime when no prime divides both. A prime pp divides two random integers with probability 1/p21/p^2, so, treating the primes as independent, the probability is ∏p(1−1/p2)\prod_p (1 - 1/p^2). Euler’s product formula ζ(s)=∏p(1−p−s)−1\zeta(s) = \prod_p (1 - p^{-s})^{-1} turns this into 1/ζ(2)=6/π21/\zeta(2) = 6/\pi^2. ↑